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Boxing at the Summer Olympic Games Paris 2024


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8 minutes ago, heywoodu said:

Not sure, but doesn't a judge need to give someone the win on his/her scorecard in the case of a draw, because in tournament formats you can't have something like a majority draw?

 

No idea whether or not the decision is fair of course, but that would explain what I would assume is a 3-2 win, with three judges having it a draw and then going for red as the better of the two.

This is exactly right. I don’t like it, but in the case above 3 judges would scored it 28-28 would have selected the red fighter as their winner as you can’t have a majority draw

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1 minute ago, dodge said:

This is exactly right. I don’t like it, but in the case above 3 judges would scored it 28-28 would have selected the red fighter as their winner as you can’t have a majority draw

Question is - why should 28-28 go in favor of any boxer?

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6 minutes ago, heywoodu said:

Yeah no idea, it was just the only mathematical explanation I could think of that would 'work' (kind of) :lol: 

 

I'm very much already preparing myself for tonight, when Heijnen loses and so I will have to say she got robbed.

I once sweared I would never accuse judges in robbery, but I broke my oath... 

Bring back the 1991 borders

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6 minutes ago, ChandlerMne said:

Question is - why should 28-28 go in favor of any boxer?

Because you need at least 3 judges to win in boxing. You can’t win 2-0 (or 1-0)

 

 

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GB screwed again, it really wont surprise me that there is a scandal about the judges at this tournment and this is the last we see of boxing at the games for bit

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8 minutes ago, dodge said:

This is exactly right. I don’t like it, but in the case above 3 judges would scored it 28-28 would have selected the red fighter as their winner as you can’t have a majority draw

Yeah, and they couldn't choose blue because originally they scored 29:28 in favor of red... But that makes deduction point completely useless, how can it affect the result? It's not a punishment at all

Bring back the 1991 borders

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Just now, dodge said:

Because you need at least 3 judges to win in boxing. You can’t win 2-0 (or 1-0)

 

 

Ok ,but with such a huge margin in favor of blue, and 3 draws, its logical that you give a victory to the blue.

3 draws cant make red a winner. 

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1 minute ago, ChandlerMne said:

Ok ,but with such a huge margin in favor of blue, and 3 draws, its logical that you give a victory to the blue.

3 draws cant make red a winner. 

The margin may not have been huge at all. It’s a quirk/failure of the 10-9 system but every boxer understands that

 

In the tightest of tight rounds a winner has to be chosen and the score will be 10-9

 

In a round where one boxer wins relatively comfortably, the score will more than likely be 10-9

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3 minutes ago, dodge said:

The margin may not have been huge at all. It’s a quirk/failure of the 10-9 system but every boxer understands that

 

In the tightest of tight rounds a winner has to be chosen and the score will be 10-9

 

In a round where one boxer wins relatively comfortably, the score will more than likely be 10-9

3 judges gave 28-28. My first question is - why is obvious draw converted into a red winning? What rule states that draw comes in favor of any partical opponent? 

30-26 and 39-27 for blue, wouldnt call it tight. 

Overall impression couldnt be in favor of red. 

But this is boxing, everything is possible when the whole system is rotten.

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